It is hard for me to explain my situation in such a short form, but I think we are missing each other here. This is a non-judicial foreclosure. I have already receive notice that the home has been sold. There was an auction for the house. I chose not to go and I receive notice that house was indeed sold. I have no way of getting the home back, nor do I want it. my case is very unusual I know, this was a forclosure that I was not in any means trying to stop. House is gone, my questions are not, how to save face with the mortgage company. I want to know what my next steps are? The mortgage company was fully aware that I was not in that house because they change the locks some time ago. I don't doubt that they would come after me regarding what was left over after sale took place, what I am asking is the mortgage company and their rep. that they hired apparently are not on the same page. The Representative thinks I am still occupying the house and I have been long gone. I am assuming that this is just the steps they have to take. So what is the consequence of me not going to court beside the contemp part? Don't misunderstand, I am not afraid to go to court, because I am ready for the mortgage company and all the bogus practices they did, like phoney appraisals, selling me the home with serious termite damage, faulty paperwork, dirty real estate agent working as a dual agent and not looking out for my best interest at all are just to name of few of the things they took advantage of me as a first time home buyer. When I go to court, I will have an attorney and lots information to back up these claims. But right now I have not reach that point. This is a court date that I would not have known about anyway and it is to take posession of a house that they already changed the locks on. I just want this nightmare behind me. Like I stated before this is an usual case and I would have to sit down in front of you to explain. Again, what are the conquences for me not going to court???