Thank you for your clarification.
Yes, that is possible. Two ways it could be done.
1) There are terms in the arbitration agreement which provide that the agreement will also be construed as a court judgment. or
2) The person owed the money files a motion to show cause requesting a court judgment to allow for a writ of garnishment to be issued.
Please note that I will be in and out of the office today. If you have further questions, please post them and I will reply as soon as I return. Thank you.
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